Prove that \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(sinx)dx = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(cosx)dx = -\(\pi\over 2\)log 2.
Solution : Let I = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(sinx)dx …….(i) then I = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) \(log(sin({\pi\over 2}-x))\)dx = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(cosx)dx …….(ii) Adding (i) and (ii), we get 2I = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(sinx)dx + \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(cosx)dx = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) (log(sinx)dx + log(cosx)) \(\implies\) \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(sinxcosx)dx = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) \(log({2sinxcosx\over 2})\)dx = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) \(log({sin2x\over 2})\)dx = \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(sin2x)dx – \(\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\) log(2)dx …